konagirl
Active member
- Joined
- Oct 16, 2015
- Messages
- 56
- Reason
- CALS
- Diagnosis
- 04/2016
- Country
- US
- State
- FLORIDA
- City
- Jacksonville
Hi there, I hope my questions are not too silly, I am just trying to wrap my brain around some things. To be fair, and honest, we do not have a diagnosis yet so maybe I should not even be posting here, please tell me if I need to leave. Our neuro has told us he is confident my husband is facing a motor neuron disease and he mentioned PLS. We go back 12/2 for another EMG and some other test results and we are expecting a firm diagnosis on that day.
Here is what I understand: PLS effects upper motor neurons only. ALS effects both upper and lower. LMN will show on an EMG, UMP will not. So with a clean EMG, that means no LMN involvement and the diagnosis will remain PLS. I also understand that a true PLS diagnosis needs about 5 years to be firm because many times ALS will present as PLS in the early stages. Please tell me if I am understanding any of this incorrectly.
Here is where I get very confused: UMN symptoms are what produce spasticity? LMN are what produce clinical weakness and paralysis? My husband has no foot drop or the loss of usage for any muscle yet, so this makes sense to me, I think. But....I see that many people with PLS are in a wheelchair, or have lost the ability to speak or use their hands. I cant seem to comprehend HOW someone has lost use of their legs but nothing shows on an EMG? At that point, wouldn't it be muscle degeneration causing the need for a wheelchair? But if still nothing is picking up on an EMG, then it couldn't be muscle degeneration, right? So what is it that causes the loss of functionality in a limb for a person with PLS?
I really hope all that came out ok and I did not confuse too badly. I just beginning to learn all of this and it is all very overwhelming and confusing. Other than PLS progressing slower...is there any other real difference in that and ALS?
Thank you in advance for your help.
Here is what I understand: PLS effects upper motor neurons only. ALS effects both upper and lower. LMN will show on an EMG, UMP will not. So with a clean EMG, that means no LMN involvement and the diagnosis will remain PLS. I also understand that a true PLS diagnosis needs about 5 years to be firm because many times ALS will present as PLS in the early stages. Please tell me if I am understanding any of this incorrectly.
Here is where I get very confused: UMN symptoms are what produce spasticity? LMN are what produce clinical weakness and paralysis? My husband has no foot drop or the loss of usage for any muscle yet, so this makes sense to me, I think. But....I see that many people with PLS are in a wheelchair, or have lost the ability to speak or use their hands. I cant seem to comprehend HOW someone has lost use of their legs but nothing shows on an EMG? At that point, wouldn't it be muscle degeneration causing the need for a wheelchair? But if still nothing is picking up on an EMG, then it couldn't be muscle degeneration, right? So what is it that causes the loss of functionality in a limb for a person with PLS?
I really hope all that came out ok and I did not confuse too badly. I just beginning to learn all of this and it is all very overwhelming and confusing. Other than PLS progressing slower...is there any other real difference in that and ALS?
Thank you in advance for your help.