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jill1971

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I am just at the beginning of my research on familial ALS, having recently learned that my husband's family has a yet undetermined familial ALS gene. What is confusing to me is that I am reading, it seems the families with ALS have a much higher rate of ALS than would be expected given that each individual has a 50% chance of inheriting the gene. It seems there are countless examples where well over 50% of a given generation has the gene. Is it possible that these genes are being passed from parent to children at a rate higher than 50%? I understand the nature of as autosomal dominate gene, but the rates of incidence seem high. Unless it is just that the examples I am reading are of exceptional cases.

Sorry for what is probably an ignorant question, but the examples of als families that I am reading about are alarming me.

- Jill
 
The 50/50 as you know means that each individual has a one in 2 chance of inheriting the defective gene Just like when you flip a coin sometimes you get a series of heads or tails in a row. Eventually it will even out but if you take a short series it can look like it really is not even chance. Add to that that the families who have a good series ( lots of gene negative people) will not be talked about and may not be recognized as FALS. Believe me I have thought the same as my mother and her siblings were 4 out of 5 affected. My sister and I are 2 out of 2 affected. But the laws of genetics still stand. We were just unlucky. Please try to let this go until you find out more information. You are worrying so much.
 
Nikki,
I do know this, but it helped to hear your very thoughtful explanation. I am so sorry that your family is one of the unlucky ones. I gave myself two days to read and worry about this and know that it is time to let it go. Thank you for taking the time to answer my questions. You have been very helpful. I will keep your family in my prayers.

Sincerely,
Jill
 
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